The teacher hasn't uploaded a solution for this question yet.
We are given the expression $tan^{-1}(\frac{cos~x}{1-sin~x})$. We need to simplify the fraction $\frac{cos~x}{1-sin~x}$ using trigonometric identities.
We can rewrite $cos~x$ as $cos^2(\frac{x}{2}) - sin^2(\frac{x}{2})$ and $sin~x$ as $2sin(\frac{x}{2})cos(\frac{x}{2})$. So, $\frac{cos~x}{1-sin~x} = \frac{cos^2(\frac{x}{2}) - sin^2(\frac{x}{2})}{1 - 2sin(\frac{x}{2})cos(\frac{x}{2})}$
The denominator can be written as $(cos^2(\frac{x}{2}) + sin^2(\frac{x}{2})) - 2sin(\frac{x}{2})cos(\frac{x}{2}) = (cos(\frac{x}{2}) - sin(\frac{x}{2}))^2$. The numerator can be factored as $(cos(\frac{x}{2}) - sin(\frac{x}{2}))(cos(\frac{x}{2}) + sin(\frac{x}{2}))$. Therefore, $\frac{cos~x}{1-sin~x} = \frac{(cos(\frac{x}{2}) - sin(\frac{x}{2}))(cos(\frac{x}{2}) + sin(\frac{x}{2}))}{(cos(\frac{x}{2}) - sin(\frac{x}{2}))^2} = \frac{cos(\frac{x}{2}) + sin(\frac{x}{2})}{cos(\frac{x}{2}) - sin(\frac{x}{2})}$
Dividing both numerator and denominator by $cos(\frac{x}{2})$, we get: $\frac{1 + tan(\frac{x}{2})}{1 - tan(\frac{x}{2})}$
We know that $tan(a+b) = \frac{tan~a + tan~b}{1 - tan~a~tan~b}$. Here, we can write $\frac{1 + tan(\frac{x}{2})}{1 - tan(\frac{x}{2})} = \frac{tan(\frac{\pi}{4}) + tan(\frac{x}{2})}{1 - tan(\frac{\pi}{4})tan(\frac{x}{2})} = tan(\frac{\pi}{4} + \frac{x}{2})$
So, $tan^{-1}(\frac{cos~x}{1-sin~x}) = tan^{-1}(tan(\frac{\pi}{4} + \frac{x}{2})) = \frac{\pi}{4} + \frac{x}{2}$
Given that $\frac{-\pi}{2} < x < \frac{\pi}{2}$, we have $\frac{-\pi}{4} < \frac{x}{2} < \frac{\pi}{4}$. Adding $\frac{\pi}{4}$ to all sides, we get $0 < \frac{\pi}{4} + \frac{x}{2} < \frac{\pi}{2}$. Since the range of $tan^{-1}(x)$ is $(-\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2})$, the simplified expression is valid.
Final Answer: $\frac{\pi}{4} + \frac{x}{2}$
AI generated content. Review strictly for academic accuracy.