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We are given that $\vec{a}\cdot\vec{b}=\vec{a}\cdot\vec{c}$. This can be rewritten as $\vec{a}\cdot\vec{b} - \vec{a}\cdot\vec{c} = 0$, which simplifies to $\vec{a}\cdot(\vec{b}-\vec{c}) = 0$.
We are given that $\vec{a}\times\vec{b}=\vec{a}\times\vec{c}$. This can be rewritten as $\vec{a}\times\vec{b} - \vec{a}\times\vec{c} = \vec{0}$, which simplifies to $\vec{a}\times(\vec{b}-\vec{c}) = \vec{0}$.
From $\vec{a}\cdot(\vec{b}-\vec{c}) = 0$, we know that $\vec{a}$ is perpendicular to $(\vec{b}-\vec{c})$. From $\vec{a}\times(\vec{b}-\vec{c}) = \vec{0}$, we know that $\vec{a}$ is parallel to $(\vec{b}-\vec{c})$.
Since $\vec{a}$ is both perpendicular and parallel to $(\vec{b}-\vec{c})$, and $\vec{a} \ne \vec{0}$, the only possibility is that $(\vec{b}-\vec{c}) = \vec{0}$. Therefore, $\vec{b} = \vec{c}$.
Final Answer: $\vec{b}=\vec{c}$
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