The teacher hasn't uploaded a solution for this question yet.
A function is one-one if $f(x_1) = f(x_2)$ implies $x_1 = x_2$. Let $f(x_1) = f(x_2)$. $$ \frac{x_1^2 + 1}{2} = \frac{x_2^2 + 1}{2} $$ $$ x_1^2 = x_2^2 $$ $$ x_1 = \pm x_2 $$ Since $f(1) = f(-1) = 1$, the function is not one-one.
A function is onto if the range equals the codomain ($R$). For $f(x) = \frac{x^2 + 1}{2}$, since $x^2 \ge 0$ for all $x \in R$, we have $x^2 + 1 \ge 1$. Thus, $f(x) \ge \frac{1}{2}$. The range is $[\frac{1}{2}, \infty)$. Since the range is not equal to the codomain $R$, the function is not onto.
Final Answer: The function is neither one-one nor onto.
AI generated content. Review strictly for academic accuracy.